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Free ISC2 CSSLP Sample Questions
Question 1
In which type of access control do user ID and password system come under?
A. Physical B. Technical C. Power D. Administrative
Answer: B Explanation: Technical access controls include IDS systems, encryption, networksegmentation, and antivirus controls. Answer: D is incorrect. The policies and proceduresimplemented by an organization come under administrative access controls. Answer: A isincorrect. Security guards, locks on the gates, and alarms come under physical accesscontrols. Answer: C is incorrect. There is no such type of access control as power control.
Question 2
Which of the following phases of NIST SP 800-37 C&A methodology examines the residualrisk for acceptability, and prepares the final security accreditation package?
A. Security Accreditation B. Initiation C. Continuous Monitoring D. Security Certification
Answer: A Explanation: The various phases of NIST SP 800-37 C&A are as follows: Phase 1:Initiation- This phase includes preparation, notification and resource identification. Itperforms the security plan analysis, update, and acceptance. Phase 2: SecurityCertification- The Security certification phase evaluates the controls and documentation.Phase 3: Security Accreditation- The security accreditation phase examines the residualrisk for acceptability, and prepares the final security accreditation package. Phase 4:Continuous Monitoring-This phase monitors the configuration management and control,ongoing security control verification, and status reporting and documentation.
Question 3
The Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC) is the process of creating or altering thesystems; and the models and methodologies that people use to develop these systems.Which of the following are the different phases of system development life cycle? Eachcorrect answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Testing B. Implementation C. Operation/maintenance D. Development/acquisition E. Disposal F. Initiation
Answer: B,C,D,E,F Explanation: The Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC), or Software Development LifeCycle in systems engineering, information systems, and software engineering, is theprocess of creating or altering the systems; and the models and methodologies that peopleuse to develop these systems. The concept generally refers to computers or informationsystems. The following are the five phases in a generic System Development Life Cycle:1.Initiation 2.Development/acquisition 3.Implementation 4.Operation/maintenance5.Disposal
Question 4
Which of the following describes the acceptable amount of data loss measured in time?
A. Recovery Point Objective (RPO) B. Recovery Time Objective (RTO) C. Recovery Consistency Objective (RCO) D. Recovery Time Actual (RTA)
Answer: A Explanation: The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) describes the acceptable amount ofdata loss measured in time. It is the point in time to which data must be recovered asdefined by the organization. The RPO is generally a definition of what an organizationdetermines is an "acceptable loss" in a disaster situation. If the RPO of a company is 2hours and the time it takes to get the data back into production is 5 hours, the RPO is still 2hours. Based on this RPO the data must be restored to within 2 hours of the disaster.Answer: B is incorrect. The Recovery Time Objective (RTO) is the duration of time and aservice level within which a business process must be restored after a disaster ordisruption in order to avoid unacceptable consequences associated with a break inbusiness continuity. It includes the time for trying to fix the problem without a recovery, therecovery itself, tests and the communication to the users. Decision time for userrepresentative is not included. The business continuity timeline usually runs parallel with anincident management timeline and may start at the same, or different, points. In acceptedbusiness continuity planning methodology, the RTO is established during the BusinessImpact Analysis (BIA) by the owner of a process (usually in conjunction with the BusinessContinuity planner). The RTOs are then presented to senior management for acceptance.The RTO attaches to the business process and not the resources required to support theprocess. Answer: D is incorrect. The Recovery Time Actual (RTA) is established during anexercise, actual event, or predetermined based on recovery methodology the technologysupport team develops. This is the time frame the technology support takes to deliver therecovered infrastructure to the business. Answer: C is incorrect. The Recovery ConsistencyObjective (RCO) is used in Business Continuity Planning in addition to Recovery PointObjective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO). It applies data consistencyobjectives to Continuous Data Protection services.
Question 5
Rob is the project manager of the IDLK Project for his company. This project has a budgetof $5,600,000 and is expected to last 18 months. Rob has learned that a new law mayaffect how the project is allowed to proceed - even though the organization has alreadyinvested over $750,000 in the project. What risk response is the most appropriate for thisinstance?
A. Transference B. Enhance C. Mitigation D. Acceptance
Answer: D Explanation: At this point all that Rob can likely do is accepting the risk event. Becausethis is an external risk, there is little that Rob can do other than document the risk andshare the new with management and the project stakeholders. If the law is passed thenRob can choose the most appropriate way for the project to continue. Acceptanceresponse is a part of Risk Response planning process. Acceptance response delineatesthat the project plan will not be changed to deal with the risk. Management may develop acontingency plan if the risk does occur. Acceptance response to a risk event is a strategythat can be used for risks that pose either threats or opportunities. Acceptance responsecan be of two types: Passive acceptance: It is a strategy in which no plans are made to tryor avoid or mitigate the risk. Active acceptance: Such responses include developingcontingency reserves to deal with risks, in case they occur. Acceptance is the onlyresponse for both threats and opportunities. Answer: B is incorrect. Mitigation aims to lowerthe probability and/or impact of the risk event. Answer: C is incorrect. Transferencetransfers the ownership of the risk event to a third party, usually through a contractualagreement. Answer: D is incorrect. Enhance is a risk response that tries to increase theprobability and/or impact of the positive risk event.
Question 6
Which of the following terms refers to a mechanism which proves that the sender reallysent a particular message?
A. Confidentiality B. Non-repudiation C. Authentication D. Integrity
Answer: B Explanation: Non-repudiation is a mechanism which proves that the sender really sent amessage. It provides an evidence of the identity of the senderand message integrity. It alsoprevents a person from denying the submission or delivery of the message and the integrityof its contents. Answer: C is incorrect. Authentication is a process of verifying the identity ofa person or network host. Answer: A is incorrect. Confidentiality ensures that no one canread a message except the intended receiver. Answer: D is incorrect. Integrity assures thereceiver that the received message has not been altered in any way from the original.
Question 7
Which of the following are the important areas addressed by a software system's securitypolicy? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Identification and authentication B. Punctuality C. Data protection D. Accountability E. Scalability F. Access control
Answer: A,C,D,F Explanation: The security policy of a software system addresses the following importantareas: Access control Data protection Confidentiality Integrity Identification andauthentication Communication security Accountability Answer: E and B are incorrect.Scalability and punctuality are not addressed by a software system's security policy.
Question 8
Which of the following is a patch management utility that scans one or more computers on a network and alerts a user if any important Microsoft security patches are missing andalso provides links that enable those missing patches to be downloaded and installed?
A. MABS B. ASNB C. MBSA D. IDMS
Answer: C Explanation: Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA) is a tool that includes agraphical and command line interface that can perform local or remote scans of Windowssystems. It runs on computers running Windows 2000, Windows XP, or Windows Server2003 operating system. MBSA scans for common security misconfigurations in WindowsNT 4.0, Windows 2000, Windows XP, Windows Server 2003, Internet Information Server(IIS) 4.0 and above, SQL Server 7.0 and 2000, and Office 2000 and 2002. It also scans formissing hot fixes in several Microsoft products, such as Windows 2000, Windows XP, SQLServer etc. Answer: B, D, and A are incorrect. These are invalid options.
Question 9
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testingthe security of www.we-are-secure.com. He finds that the We-are-secure server isvulnerable to attacks. As a countermeasure, he suggests that the Network Administratorshould remove the IPP printing capability from the server. He is suggesting this as acountermeasure against __________.
A. SNMP enumeration B. IIS buffer overflow C. NetBIOS NULL session D. DNS zone transfer
Answer: B Explanation: Removing the IPP printing capability from a server is a good countermeasureagainst an IIS buffer overflow attack. A Network Administrator should take the followingsteps to prevent a Web server from IIS buffer overflow attacks: Conduct frequent scans forserver vulnerabilities. Install the upgrades of Microsoft service packs. Implement effective firewalls. Apply URLScan and IISLockdown utilities. Remove the IPPprinting capability. Answer: D is incorrect. The following are the DNS zone transfercountermeasures: Do not allow DNS zone transfer using the DNS property sheet: a.OpenDNS. b.Right-click a DNS zone and click Properties. c.On the Zone Transfer tab, clear theAllow zone transfers check box. Configure the master DNS server to allow zone transfersonly from secondary DNS servers: a.Open DNS. b.Right-click a DNS zone and clickProperties. c.On the zone transfer tab, select the Allow zone transfers check box, and thendo one of the following: To allow zone transfers only to the DNS servers listed on the nameservers tab, click on the Only to the servers listed on the Name Server tab. To allow zonetransfers only to specific DNS servers, click Only to the following servers, and add the IPaddress of one or more servers. Deny all unauthorized inbound connections to TCP port53. Implement DNS keys and encrypted DNS payloads. Answer: A is incorrect. Thefollowing are the countermeasures against SNMP enumeration: 1.Removing the SNMPagent or disabling the SNMP service 2.Changing the default PUBLIC community namewhen 'shutting off SNMP' is not an option 3.Implementing the Group Policy security optioncalled Additional restrictions for anonymous connections 4.Restricting access to NULLsession pipes and NULL session shares 5.Upgrading SNMP Version 1 with the latestversion 6.Implementing Access control list filtering to allow only access to the read-writecommunity from approved stations or subnets Answer: C is incorrect. NetBIOS NULLsession vulnerabilities are hard to prevent, especially if NetBIOS is needed as part of theinfrastructure. One or more of the following steps can be taken to limit NetBIOS NULLsession vulnerabilities: 1.Null sessions require access to the TCP 139 or TCP 445 port,which can be disabled by a Network Administrator. 2.A Network Administrator can alsodisable SMB services entirely on individual hosts by unbinding WINS Client TCP/IP fromthe interface. 3.A Network Administrator can also restrict the anonymous user by editingthe registry values: a.Open regedit32, and go to HKLM\SYSTEM\CurrentControlSet\LSA.b.Choose edit > add value. Value name: RestrictAnonymous Data Type: REG_WORDValue: 2
Question 10
"Enhancing the Development Life Cycle to Produce Secure Software" summarizes thetools and practices that are helpful in producing secure software. What are these tools andpractices? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Leverage attack patterns B. Compiler security checking and enforcement C. Tools to detect memory violations D. Safe software libraries E. Code for reuse and maintainability
Answer: B,C,D Explanation: The tools and practices that are helpful in producing secure software aresummarized in the report "Enhancing the Development Life Cycle to Produce SecureSoftware". The tools and practices are as follows: Compiler security checking andenforcement Safe software libraries Runtime error checking and safety enforcement Toolsto detect memory violations Code obfuscation Answer: A and E are incorrect. These aresecure coding principles and practices of defensive coding.
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